LEG 320 Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 6 Chapter 10 and 11

CHAPTER 10

HOMICIDE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         Which of the following requirements is included in those generally required by courts to reduce murder to manslaughter?

a.	there must be adequate provocation
b.	the killing must have been in a heat of passion
c.	there must have been no opportunity to cool off
d.	all of these are included in the requirements for reducing murder to manslaughter.

2.         Which of the following requirements is NOT included in those generally required by courts to reduce murder to manslaughter?

a.	there must be adequate provocation
b.	the killing must have been in a heat of passion
c.	the killing must not have occurred during another crime
d.	there must be a causal connection between the provocation, the rage or anger, and the fatal act

3.         The Latin term meaning the body or substance of the crime (proof that a crime has been committed) is

a.	habeas corpus
b.	corpus collosum
c.	corpus delicti
d.	corpus respondeat

4.         If the body of the murder victim is never found, the defendant

a.	may be held in custody indefinitely
b.	may be convicted based on circumstantial evidence
c.	can never be convicted of murder
d.	may be convicted only of manslaughter

5.         When the body of the deceased is available, but doctors are unable to testify specifically that the cause of death was due to an unlawful act

a.	jurors may speculate as to cause of death
b.	the defendant is still likely to be convicted of murder
c.	the defendant will likely plead self defense
d.	corpus delicti has not been proved

6.         The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the Oregon Death with Dignity Law because it reasoned that treating a physician writing a prescription for a mercy killing as “drug abuse” was

a.	unreasonable
b.	ridiculous
c.	irresponsible
d.	reasonable

7.         Under the old common law

a.	the killing of a fetus was a capital offense
b.	killing a fetus carried the same penalty as for killing an adult
c.	murder of a newborn required showing it was born alive
d.	murder of a child required the child have lived at least one-year-and-a-day

8.         Which of the following is NOT required under the Oregon Death with Dignity Law for a person to legally commit suicide?

a.	a patient must be found to be terminally ill and have less than six months to live
b.	patients must have the mental capacity to fully understand the situation that confronts them
c.	a 15-day waiting period after the patient applies and is found to have qualified for physician-assisted suicide
d.	a physician must prescribe and administer the drugs to end the patient’s                  life

9.         Under the common law, the killing of a fetus was

a.	not a homicide
b.	feticide
c.	homicide
d.	genocide

10.       At common law, how soon must a victim die after time of the wrongful act for a homicide conviction?

a.	one year and a day
b.	one year
c.	one month
d.	one day

11.       The doctrine used when the intention to harm one individual inadvertently causes a second person to be hurt instead is called

a.	transferred intent
b.	manslaughter
c.	voluntary manslaughter
d.	involuntary manslaughter

12.       If a person is killed during the commission of a felony not listed in § 1111, it is

a.	not murder solely because of the felony committed
b.	not murder
c.	murder solely because of the felony committed
d.	none of these answers is correct

13.       Which of the following is almost never sufficient provocation to reduce a charge of murder to that of manslaughter?

a.	words and gestures
b.	battery
c.	adultery
d.	trespass

14.       Corpus delicti means the

a.	body of the crime
b.	scene of the crime
c.	essence of the crime
d.	victim of the crime

15.       A killer whose gun shot misses the intended victim but kills a bystander can be convicted of the intentional murder of the bystander by use of the doctrine of

a.	transferred intent
b.	accidental murder
c.	common design
d.	concurrent mens rea

16.       A death at the hands of one who intended to do only serious bodily harm

a.	will be prosecuted as a misdemeanor
b.	will be prosecuted the same as intentional murder
c.	will likely be prosecuted for a lesser degree of murder
d.	cannot be prosecuted

17.       Depraved-mind murder

a.	includes specific intent to injure or harm
b.	is called second-degree murder in some states
c.	is always a capital offense
d.	is a misdemeanor

18.       A person who kills another during the course of committing a felony, even if the killing is accidental, is guilty of

a.	depraved heart murder
b.	involuntary manslaughter
c.	felony murder
d.	excusable homicide

19.       Most states have

a.	abolished the felony murder rule
b.	reduced felony murder to a misdemeanor
c.	found felony murder to be unconstitutional
d.	retained some form of the felony murder rule

20.       Some states have limited the felony murder rule by requiring that the

a.	defendant have intend to kill the victim
b.	felony is a dangerous one
c.	victim has actively opposed the defendant
d.	victim has acted negligently

21.       Today, medical science makes proving the connection between actions and a resulting death much easier and clearer, so most states have dropped the

a.	year-and-a-day rule
b.	decade-and-a-day rule
c.	month-and-a-day rule
d.	week-and-a-day rule

22.       If it appears the victim may have provoked the killing, the defendant will likely be charged with

a.	felony murder
b.	manslaughter
c.	first-degree murder
d.	depraved-mind murder