BUS 335 Week 6 Quiz– Strayer
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Quiz
5 Chapter 7
Chapter
7
Student:
___________________________________________________________________________
1. Measures
are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects
that are of concern to us.
True False
2. When
developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to
interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific
situation.
True False
3. To
achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same
for all applicants.
True False
4. Scoring
keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been
administered.
True False
5. Most
staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio
scale.
True False
6. A
rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the
job is an example of an ordinal scale.
True False
7. Research
shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective
means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two
types of measures.
True False
8. The
standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a
scale.
True False
9. The
most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the
median.
True False
10. Standard
scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative
sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing
across several tests.
True False
11. If
an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this
person's score is twice as high as the average test
score.
True False
12. A
correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to
+1.
True False
13. A
correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the
other.
True False
14. A
standard level for statistical significance is
p<.50.
True False
15. With
very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be
statistically significant.
True False
16. Measurement
standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of
measurements.
True False
17. When
numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of
measurement.
True False
18. If
scores are classified as "low", "medium", and high",
the scale of measurement is nominal.
True False
19. Human
body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of
measure.
True False
20. Numerical
employment interview ratings represent objective
measures.
True False
21. Performance
appraisal ratings are subjective
measures.
True False
22. The
research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and
objective measures of performance.
True False
23. A
correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally
low association or relationship between the two
sets.
True False
24. If
the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that
the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety
percent.
True False
25. A
correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there
is a perfect linear relationship between these two
variables.
True False
26. The
correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another
variable.
True False
27. While
correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between
variables, it is generally not used as a tool for
prediction.
True False
28. Which
of the following is not part of the process of
measurement?
A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing
the attribute's acceptability to applicants
C. using the measure to gauge
the attribute
D. constructing a measure of the attribute
29. The
process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same
context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is
called
____________________.
A. standardization
B. optimization
C. rationalization
D. inflation
30. Which
of the following statements about measurement is not correct?
A. It
assigns numbers to objects.
B. It is based on rules determined in
advance.
C. It measures the object not the attribute.
D. It measures
constructs.
31. A
nominal scale of measurement has ________.
A. rank order
B. an
absolute true zero point
C. classification by categories
D. equal
differences between points on a scale of measurement
32. A
scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute
they
possess.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
33. A
scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute
they possess, with equal space between
objects.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
34. A
scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to
the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the
categories.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
35. Rankings
of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n)
_______.
A. ratio scale
B. ordinal scale
C. interval
scale
D. none of the above
36. Length
in inches is an example of a(n) _________.
A. ratio
scale
B. nominal scale
C. ordinal scale
D. interval scale
37. The
most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the
______.
A. mean
B. median
C. standard
deviation
D. mode
38. The
variability of a measure is best captured by the
_____________.
A. mean and standard deviation
B. range and
standard deviation
C. range and median
D. mode and mean
39. The
likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the
actual value of r in a sample from that population is the
____________.
A. practical significance
B. likelihood
ratio
C. functional statistic
D. statistical significance
40. Which
of the following results represents statistically significance as it is
commonly understood?
A. r = .30
B. p < .05
C. r >
.10
D. all of the above
41. A
z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the
applicant ______.
A. achieved a score 3 points higher than the
average score
B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean
score
C. had a score 3 percent higher than the average score
D. had a
score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score
42. The
correlation coefficient expresses _________.
A. causality
B. variance
C. strength
of the relationship between two variables
D. the range between two
variables
43. A
complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a
correlation coefficient of _________.
A. .50
B. 1.00
C. -1.00
D. zero
44. The
larger the correlation coefficient, _________.
A. the greater the
practical significance
B. the smaller its practical
significance
C. the larger its range
D. the smaller its statistical
significance
45. The
proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically
significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the
__________.
A. z score
B. standard deviation
C. squared
correlation coefficient
D. the t test
46. Which
of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most
confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as
having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such
relationship?
A. .10
B. .50
C. .01
D. .05
47. In
staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute
itself, rather than merely indicators of the
attribute.
True False
48. The
consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its
validity.
True False
49. Perfect
reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of
measurement error.
True False
50. Calculation
of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for
objective measures, not subjective
measures.
True False
51. Comparing
scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of
internal consistency.
True False
52. If
all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a
person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings
are reliable.
True False
53. Even
when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect
precision.
True False
54. Error
caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e.,
the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination
error.
True False
55. Asking
different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings
between these same job applicants is an example of contamination
error.
True False
56. If
an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work
priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during
their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is
contaminated.
True False
57. A
measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having
adequate reliability.
True False
58. The
standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual
scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given
measure.
True False
59. Reliability
sets the lower limit on validity.
True False
60. The
extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's
knowledge is a measure of the test's
validity.
True False
61. Measuring
the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of
current employees involves a predictive validity
design.
True False
62. Criterion
measures are not used in the calculation of content
validity.
True False
63. Even
if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related
validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable
that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to
another.
True False
64. Organizations
that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that
govern their use.
True False
65. The
process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of
criterion measures.
True False
66. The
assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than
the assessment of predictive validity.
True False
67. One
guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be
routinely subjected to content
validation.
True False
68. Reliability
of measurement is defined as __________.
A. frequency of
measurement
B. magnitude of measurement
C. accuracy of
measurement
D. consistency of measurement
69. Which
of the following is a true statement?
A. true score divided by error
equals actual score
B. actual score equals true score plus
error
C. actual score plus error equals true score
D. true score
equals variance plus error
70. Coefficient
alpha assesses ____________.
A. reliability within a single time
period
B. reliability between time periods
C. reliability between
samples
D. test-retest reliability
E. A and B are correct
71. Comparing
objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____
reliability.
A. maximal asymptotic
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. interrater
72. Comparing
the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a
method for assessing ______
reliability.
A. intrarater
B. fixed-point
C. test-retest
D. interrater
73. Reliability
of a measure places ________.
A. no limit on the validity of a
measure
B. a lower limit on the validity of a measure
C. an average
limit on the validity of a measure
D. an upper limit on the validity of a
measure
74. Deficiency
error would not indicate a failure to _________.
A. measure some
portion of the attribute of interest
B. adequately define the attribute of
interest
C. construct a proper measure of the totality of the
attribute
D. calculate the standard deviation
75. Contamination
error _________.
A. is easy to minimize and control
B. is the
same as deficiency error
C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a
measure
D. shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha
76. Which
of the following is an example of contamination error?
A. irrelevant
material on the test
B. guessing by the test taker
C. different time
limits for the same test
D. all of the above
77. The
standard error of measurement allows ________.
A. calculation of
confidence intervals for true scores
B. estimates of content validity
C. calculation
of confidence intervals for actual scores
D. calculation of confidence
intervals for error
78. Validity
of a measure is best defined as ________.
A. the upper limit of
reliability
B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it
is intended to measure
C. the lower limit of reliability
D. the
consistency of measurement
79. Which
of the following is a type of
validity?
A. test-retest
B. coefficient
alpha
C. criterion
D. parallel forms
80. When
predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be
considered valid if __________.
A. the correlation coefficient has
the desired practical and statistical significance
B. the correlation
coefficient has statistical significance alone
C. the correlation coefficient
is insignificant
D. the correlation coefficient has practical significance
alone
81. Content
validation is most appropriate when ____________.
A. reliability is
too high
B. sample size is large
C. criterion measures are readily
available
D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
82. The
case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if
___.
A. correlation coefficients are negative
B. the standard
error of measurement is large
C. differences in method and statistical
differences are controlled
D. reliability is low
83. Which
of the following is not part of the process of
measurement?
A. choosing an attribute of concern
B. assessing
the attribute's acceptability to applicants
C. using the measure to gauge
the attribute
D. constructing a measure of the attribute
84. Applicant
flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the
subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly
different from each other.
True False
85. According
to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP),
comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70%
rule.
True False
86. When
assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into
account.
True False
87. Investigation
of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization
analysis."
True False
88. Adverse
impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true
adverse impact occurring in an
organization.
True False
89. The
use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact
occurring.
True False
90. The
Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a
selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either
eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity
evidence.
True False
91. The
Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of
selection rates for ________.
A. every disability category currently
assessed
B. each job category
C. the population at large
D. all
of the above
92. Applicant
flow statistics require the calculation of ________.
A. selection
rates for the groups under analysis
B. interview rates for the groups
under analysis
C. rejection rates for the groups under
analysis
D. range scores for the groups under analysis
93. Applicant
stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages
for _________.
A. unemployed workers
B. measures of content
validity
C. availability in the population
D. the reliability of a
measure
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